FREE PDF 2025 RELIABLE MEDICAL COUNCIL OF CANADA MCCQE: MCCQE PART 1 EXAM LATEST TEST MATERIALS

Free PDF 2025 Reliable Medical Council of Canada MCCQE: MCCQE Part 1 Exam Latest Test Materials

Free PDF 2025 Reliable Medical Council of Canada MCCQE: MCCQE Part 1 Exam Latest Test Materials

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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q149-Q154):

NEW QUESTION # 149
You are covering for your colleague who is on vacation this week. You receive the results from an ultrasonography that had been ordered for a 32-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, aborta 0. The ultrasonography-estimated fetal weight is below the fifth percentile for 30 weeks' gestation; gestational age was confirmed by an earlier ultrasonogram. The amniotic fluid volume is within normal range. Her first child's birth weight was 2800 g at full term. Which one of the following is the best next step?

  • A. Reassure the patient that the fetus is probably at the lower range of normal weight
  • B. Ask the patient to present to the obstetrics ward for further fetal assessment
  • C. Schedule an urgent uterine artery Doppler ultrasonography
  • D. Plan a follow-up appointment as soon as your colleague is back from vacation
  • E. Discuss the benefits of acetylsalicylic acid

Answer: B

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
An estimated fetal weight below the 5th percentile at 30 weeks is concerning for intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). This warrants prompt evaluation of fetal well-being via biophysical profile and Doppler assessment. The patient should be referred for further fetal assessment immediately to rule out placental insufficiency or other complications.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, "Fetal Growth Restriction":
"EFW < 10th percentile, especially < 5th, warrants further evaluation including Doppler studies and biophysical profile. Immediate assessment is warranted to determine fetal well-being." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-4: Antepartum Surveillance):
"Candidates must initiate urgent assessment in cases of abnormal fetal growth to reduce perinatal morbidity." Delaying care (B) is inappropriate. Reassurance (A) is unsafe. ASA (D) is preventative, not corrective.
Doppler (E) is important but should be coordinated through obstetrical triage.


NEW QUESTION # 150
A 45-year-old man presents to your family practice for follow-up because he has had repeated transient ischemic attacks and had been advised not to drive. During the interview, you find out that he is still driving.
He explains that he only drives to the grocery store and his wife, who also has a copyright, is always a passenger with him. He insists he can drive. You think that he should no longer be driving a car. Which one of the following is the best next step?

  • A. Consult a neurologist to assess whether the patient is fit to drive.
  • B. Refuse to treat him further unless he stops driving.
  • C. Discuss this further with him.
  • D. Physically take away his license.
  • E. Communicate your concerns to the motor vehicle licensing authority.

Answer: E

Explanation:
In most Canadian provinces and territories, physicians are legally obligated to report patients who pose a danger due to medical conditions affecting driving ability. Given the history of TIAs and continued unsafe driving, reporting is necessary for public safety.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Fitness to Drive" Section:
"Physicians must report to motor vehicle authorities if a patient poses a risk to public safety due to a medical condition. TIAs are considered reportable if they impair ability and the patient does not comply with driving restrictions." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-1: Medical Fitness and Reporting):
"Candidates must recognize situations requiring mandatory reporting of patients unfit to drive due to neurologic or other impairing conditions." You may still discuss with the patient (B), but this does not replace the duty to report. Physically taking the license (C) is illegal. Refusing care (D) is unethical. A neurologist (E) could be helpful but would delay action in a clear case.


NEW QUESTION # 151
A 62-year-old man, who has not seen a physician in 20 years, presents to your clinic with a burning sensation in his feet. The symptoms have been progressing slowly over the last 6 months. There is no associated motor weakness or skin changes. He reports no significant past medical history and takes no medications. His alcohol intake is minimal. On examination, he has reduced pinprick/vibration sensation and proprioception in the ankles with absent ankle reflexes. Which one of the following blood tests would you expect to be abnormal?

  • A. Folate
  • B. Hemoglobin A1c
  • C. Uric acid
  • D. Ferritin
  • E. Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies

Answer: B

Explanation:
This is a classic presentation of diabetic peripheral neuropathy: bilateral distal sensory symptoms with preserved motor function and no other systemic findings. The most useful test to confirm this in a previously undiagnosed patient is HbA1c.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Endocrinology, Diabetes Complications:
"Peripheral neuropathy is a common complication of undiagnosed or poorly controlled diabetes. Confirm with HbA1c if diagnosis is not yet established." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Endocrinology:
"Candidates should evaluate for diabetes in patients with peripheral neuropathy and screen appropriately with HbA1c." Folate (B) and B12 deficiency may also cause neuropathy but are less likely in the absence of nutritional risk factors. Other choices (A, D, E) are unrelated to this pattern.


NEW QUESTION # 152
A 4-year-old girl is brought to the family practice by her father. The child has a 2-week history of low-grade fever, fatigue, and sore throat. She has also developed several small, round, mildly tender lumps bilaterally in her neck. She was previously well. Which one of the following is most likely to be found on abdominal examination?

  • A. Renal mass
  • B. Abdominal bruit
  • C. Shifting dullness
  • D. Palpable spleen
  • E. Generalized tenderness

Answer: D

Explanation:
This child likely has infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), characterized by fever, sore throat, cervical lymphadenopathy, fatigue, and splenomegaly. A palpable spleen is a hallmark of EBV in children.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, "Infectious Mononucleosis":
"Key features include fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. Children may have milder symptoms but often exhibit palpable spleen." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 75-2: Infectious Disease):
"Candidates should recognize common viral syndromes such as EBV and identify complications including splenomegaly." Other options (renal mass, ascites, etc.) are inconsistent with this viral presentation.


NEW QUESTION # 153
A 31-year-old man presents with nocturnal non-exertional chest pain. During an exercise stress test, he does not experience chest pain, and there are no significant ST segment changes on the electrocardiogram. He achieves 17 metabolic equivalent of task (MET), a blood pressure of 190/96 mm Hg (resting blood pressure of
130/80 mm Hg), and a maximum heart rate of 162/min (85% of age-predicted maximum). Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step?

  • A. Prescribe hydrochlorothiazide
  • B. Schedule cardiac catheterization
  • C. Offer reassurance
  • D. Advise against vigorous exercise
  • E. Prescribe acetylsalicylic acid and metoprolol

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient demonstrates excellent exercise tolerance (17 METs) and no ischemic changes or exertional symptoms, which makes cardiac ischemia unlikely. However, the hypertensive response to exercise (BP >190 systolic) indicates masked or latent hypertension. This should be managed proactively, typically starting with a thiazide.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Cardiology:
"An exaggerated hypertensive response during exercise is predictive of future hypertension. Treatment with antihypertensive agents such as thiazides may be warranted." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 31-1: Hypertension and Risk Management):
"Candidates must identify abnormal BP responses to exercise and initiate appropriate treatment." Reassurance alone (A) ignores the hypertensive response. Catheterization (C) and beta-blockers (D) are unnecessary without ischemia. Advising against exercise (B) is counterproductive in a young, otherwise healthy patient.
-


NEW QUESTION # 154
......

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